Q: The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which approach(es) to therapeutic methods would be considered in this patient’s treatment? (Select all that apply.)

A: Therapeutic drugs

B: Concentrated carbohydrate diet

C: Family centered care

D: Regular daily exercise and activity

E: Daily baths

Q: An older adult experiencing shortness of breath is brought to the hospital by her daughter. While obtaining the medication history from the patient and her daughter, the nurse discovers that neither has a list of the patient’s current medications or prescriptions. All the patient has is a weekly pill dispenser that contains four different pills. The prescriptions are filled through the local pharmacy. Which resource(s) would be appropriate to use in determining the medication names and doses? (Select all th

A: Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference

B: Physicians’ Desk Reference, Section 4

C: Senior citizens’ center

D: Patient’s home pharmacy

Q: Which online drug reference makes available to health care providers and the public a standard, comprehensive, up to date look up and downloadable resource about medicines?

A: American Drug Index

B: American Hospital Formulary

C: DailyMed

D: Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)

Q: What would the FDA do to expedite drug development and approval for an outbreak of smallpox, for which there is no known treatment?

A: List smallpox as a health orphan disease.

B: Omit the preclinical research phase.

C: Extend the clinical research phase.

D: Fast track the investigational drug.

Q: Which statement is true about over the counter (OTC: drugs?

A: They are not listed in the USP NF.

B: A prescription from a health care provider is needed.

C: They are sold without a prescription.

D: They are known only by their brand names.

Q: What is the name under which a drug is listed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA:?

A: Brand

B: Nonproprietary

C: Official

D: Trademark

Q: The nurse planning patient teaching regarding drug names would include which statement(s)? (Select all that apply.)

A: Most drug companies place their products on the market under generic names.

B: The official name is the name under which the drug is listed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA:.

C: Brand names are easier to pronounce, spell, and remember.

D: The first letter of the generic name is not capitalized.

E: The chemical name is most meaningful to the patient.

Q: Which is the most authoritative reference for medications that are injected?

A: Physician’s Desk Reference

B: Handbook on Injectable Drugs

C: DailyMed

D: Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs

Q: When categorizing, the nurse is aware that which drug(s) would be considered Schedule II? (Select all that apply.)

A: Marijuana

B: Percodan

C: Amphetamines

D: Fiorinal

E: Flurazepam

Q: What is the most comprehensive reference available to research a drug interaction?

A: Drug Facts and Comparisons

B: Drug Interaction Facts

C: Handbook on Injectable Drugs

D: Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference

Q: Meperidine (Demerol) is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does this drug fall?

A: I

B: II

C: III

D: IV

Q: Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?

A: Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)

B: Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)

C: Controlled Substances Act (1970)

D: Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)

Q: The nurse is administering Lomotil, a Schedule V drug. Which statement is true about this drug’s classification?

A: Abuse potential for this drug is low.

B: Psychological dependency is likely.

C: There is a high potential for abuse.

D: This drug is not a controlled substance.

Q: Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?

A: USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names

B: Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database

C: United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)

D: Drug Interaction Facts

Q: The physician has written an order for a drug with which the nurse is unfamiliar. Which section of the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is most helpful to get information about this drug?

A: Manufacturer’s section

B: Brand and Generic Name section

C: Product Category section

D: Product Information section

Q: The nurse is transcribing new orders written for a patient with a substance abuse history. Choose the medication ordered that has the greatest risk for abuse.

A: Lomotil

B: Diazepam

C: Phenobarbital

D: Lortab

Q: The goal of the MyPlate food guide is to promote

A: variety, proportion moderation, gradual improvements, and physical activity.

B: physical activity, portion control, daily blood pressure monitoring, and gradual improvements in health.

C: portion control, daily physical activity, daily glucose monitoring, moderation, and variety.

D: variety, moderation, weighing food portions, daily blood pressure monitoring, and glucose monitoring.

Q: The basic building units of protein are called _____ acids.

A: fatty

B: amino

C: nucleic

D: carboxyl

Q: The person most at risk for malnutrition would be a(n)

A: active young adult who eats 3 to 5 servings of fruits and vegetables along with lean meats and fish and complex carbohydrates and exercises 3 times a week.

B: young child who refuses to eat peas, green beans, and broccoli but loves fruits and other vegetables.

C: middle-aged man undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia and who is having difficulty eating solid food.

D: young weight lifter who has recently undergone surgery for a compound fracture of his left femur.

Q: A young woman is 5 months pregnant. She currently lives in a condition of poverty and often runs out of money to buy food. She is most at risk for

A: liver damage.

B: osteopenia.

C: undernutrition.

D: overnutrition.

Q: The dietary regimen that would provide optimal nutrition for a person who is recovering from an extended illness is a diet

A: low in protein, fat, and carbohydrates; high in minerals and vitamins; and very low in fiber.

B: providing adequate amounts of carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins along with adequate water and fiber.

C: high in protein, fiber, and fluid; low in carbohydrates; and adequate in vitamins and minerals.

D: with essential amounts of vitamins and minerals; high in protein; and low in fat, carbohydrates, and fiber.

Q: A patient is to receive 2400 kcal/day while recovering from a motor vehicle accident. He is to receive 50% of calories from carbohydrates, 25% of calories from fat, and 25% of calories from protein. Which of the following represents the appropriate calories for each substrate?

A: 1500 kcal from carbohydrates, 500 kcal from fat, and 400 kcal from protein

B: 1400 kcal from carbohydrates, 600 kcal from fat, and 400 kcal from protein

C: 1200 kcal from carbohydrates, 600 kcal from fat, and 600 kcal from protein

D: 1600 kcal from carbohydrates, 400 kcal from fat, and 400 kcal from protein

Q: The main nutrients involved in metabolic regulation and control are

A: water and vitamins.

B: vitamins and minerals.

C: vitamins and fatty acids.

D: minerals and carbohydrates.

Q: The number of kilocalories from protein in a sandwich that contains 15 g protein is _____ kcal.

A: 45

B: 60

C: 75

D: 135

Q: A patient asks you what he should eat to maintain an optimal diet. An appropriate response would be to

A: eat a variety of foods and eat in moderation.

B: avoid all fast food and processed foods.

C: eat only natural, organic foods.

D: use vitamin and mineral supplements to ensure adequate nutrients.

Q: Mr. Katz, who is 48 years old, is admitted to the hospital with a fracture to his left hip. He weighs 248 lb (54 lb above his desired weight). He is considered to be in a state of overnutrition. The statement most true regarding his state of overnutrition is

A: desired nutrients are consumed in excess amounts without the risk of malnutrition.

B: because excess body fat is evident and excess calories are consumed, there is no risk of nutrient deficiency leading to malnutrition.

C: even though excess body fat and excess nutrient intake are evident, there still may be a risk for some type of nutrient deficiency leading to malnutrition.

D: excess body weight may or may not be present along with excess consumption of carbohydrates and fat, which results in inadequate vitamin and mineral intake.

Q: Which factors place a person at the greatest risk for malnutrition?

A: poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, poor hygiene, and depleted nutrition reserves

B: poor hygiene, insufficient exercise, and excess carbohydrate intake

C: depleted carbohydrate intake, poor hygiene, and excess calorie intake

D: poor appetite, insufficient nutrient intake, depleted nutrition reserves, and a form of metabolic stress

Q: Promoting a health care service that improves diabetes management for the elderly in a community would assist in which of the following?

A: supporting the National Health Goals-Healthy People 2020

B: reducing world hunger in the United States and Asia

C: improving Medicare reimbursement claims

D: providing access to child care services for children

Q: You are asked to help plan meals for a local monthly community dinner meeting for the elderly. The tool that would be most helpful for planning healthy meals is the

A: Dietary Reference Intakes.

B: Dietary Guidelines for Americans.

C: MyPlate food guidance system.

D: basic four food groups.

C:G. is a 45-year-old man who has a history of diabetes, and the dietary history reveals that he enjoys a good breakfast with whole grain cereal and fruit. For lunch he usually eats soup or an entrée consisting of a salad and meat along with 2% milk and a sugared soda. He usually has an afternoon snack of chips and sugared soda and dinner is eaten at a restaurant most days of the week where he chooses steaks, hamburgers, and fries or onion rings along with a salad and a beer or other high- calorie beverage.

A: not to eat at restaurants on a regular basis unless he chooses salads only along with water.

B: to continue with whole grains, lean proteins, and vegetables and replace sugary sodas with sugar-free beverages.

C: to drink skim milk and eliminate soups, replacing them with fatty fish five meals a week.

D: to enjoy his diet as is but encourage adequate amounts of exercise throughout the week.

Q: The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) address the nutrient needs of

A: all adults.

B: most healthy population groups.

C: minority ethnic groups.

D: pregnant women, infants, and children.

Q: You are asked to explain the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to an adult community evening class at the local college. The most appropriate areas to cover in teaching this topic include

A: appropriate amounts of sodium, saturated fat, cholesterol, trans—fatty acids, whole grains, and alcohol.

B: adequate calories and protein for weight maintenance, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, and food fads.

C: importance of low-carbohydrate diets, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, appropriate food groups, and sodium and potassium.

D: food security, weight maintenance, glucose monitoring, and blood pressure monitoring technique.

Q: Overnutrition is characterized by

A: overeating at a meal.

B: excess nutrient and energy intake over time.

C: eating a diet with too much variety.

D: using dietary supplements.

Q: When not enough scientific evidence is available to establish a Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA:, the value used to guide intake is called the

A: Dietary Reference Intake (DRI).

B: tolerable upper intake level (UL).

C: estimated average requirement (EAR).

D: adequate intake (AI).

Q: A patient requires a nutrition assessment. The most appropriate professional to perform the assessment is a

A: physician.

B: nurse.

C: public health nutritionist.

D: registered dietitian.

Q: The number of kilocalories provided by one slice of bread that contains 30 g carbohydrate, 3 g protein, and 1 g fat is _____ kcal.

A: 34

B: 136

C: 141

D: 306

Q: Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the functions of protein?

A: Proteins can be a primary fuel source even if there is adequate carbohydrate intake.

B: Proteins are a necessary nutrient to provide energy for the body in times of stress.

C: Proteins can be used as coenzyme factors during cell metabolism.

D: Proteins are essential to tissue building and repair within the body.

Q: Which is least likely to be a primary cause of malnutrition?

A: conditions of poverty

B: prolonged hospitalization

C: homelessness

D: exercise

Q: A 65-year-old man requires 2000 kcal/day without any specific fat or carbohydrate requirements. The approximate number of kilocalories per day from fat his diet should provide is _____ kcal/day.

A: 400 to 700

B: 100 to 300

C: 500 to 800

D: 900 to 1200

Q: The body's main storage form of carbohydrate is

A: glycogen.

B: glycerol.

C: glucagon.

D: glucose.

Q: The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are developed by the

A: U.S. Public Health Service.

B: Food and Drug Administration (FDA:.

C: National Academy of Sciences, Food and Nutrition Board.

D: National Institutes of Health (NIH).

Q: The number of kilocalories from fat in a sandwich that contains 22 g fat is _____ kcal.

A: 88

B: 132

C: 154

D: 198

Q: A patient is placed on a 2300-kcal diet. The health care provider is asked to calculate the grams of carbohydrates he is receiving from the diet. The number of grams of carbohydrates is

A: 50 g.

B: 35 g.

C: 250 g.

D: impossible to calculate from this data.

Q: The nutrients that provide the body with its primary source of fuel for energy are

A: vitamins.

B: minerals.

C: fiber.

D: carbohydrates.

Q: A 52-year-old single woman comes to the health professional for advice on maintaining optimal nutritional health. Her food intake records indicate that she likes to eat at fast food restaurants at least twice a week, and relies on processed foods for the majority of her dietary intake. She maintains an active lifestyle and works part time at the local bank. The next step to assist this woman would be to

A: assess meal plan options along with the ability to prepare nutritious foods.

B: obtain laboratory values to further assess her nutrition status and recommend supplementing her diet with vitamins and minerals.

C: find ways to decrease eating at fast food restaurants and incorporate physical exercise into her daily routine.

D: recommend that she use the MyPlate food guide to change her eating style and attend cooking classes at the local community center.

Q: The sum of all body processes inside living cells that sustain life and health is

A: science.

B: digestion.

C: metabolism.

D: nutrition.

Q: The following are all examples of enabling factors that influence health behavior except A: the financial ability to afford health care.

B: the availability of fresh produce in your local grocery store.

C: strong personal motivation and willpower.

D: a history of cancer in your family.

Q: The Healthy Campus initiative is A: a federal initiative to facilitate broad, positive health changes in the U.S. population.

B: an initiative adapted from Healthy People 2010 for college campuses.

C: a mandatory high school program focused on decreasing alcohol and drug abuse.

D: a program outlining college campus progress towards meeting Healthy People 2020 goals.

Q: The theory that a person progresses through six stages of change before achieving sustained behavior change is known as the A: stress-diasthesis model.

B: transtheoretical model.

C: health belief model.

D: general adaptation syndrome model.

Q: Recall Corey's Student Story in the chapter. Corey is the student who has a large scar from surgery to correct a skeletal condition. Based on his story, he is A: at the low end of the wellness continuum.

B: at the high end of the wellness continuum.

C: moving in a negative direction in the wellness continuum.

D: None of the answers is correct.

Q: Recall Jasmine's Student Story in the chapter. What benefit might Jasmine perceive as a motivator to changing her current behavior? A: Achieving a better financial situation

B: Getting higher grades in school

C: Making lasting relationships

D: Having more time to spend with family

Q: Which of the following habits can result in premature aging? A: Smoking

B: Poor eating habits

C: Drinking alcohol excessively

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: Intellectual health is characterized by A: being physically active.

B: an openness to new ideas and skills and a capacity to think critically.

C: the ability to perceive reality accurately.

D: satisfying interactions with friends and family.

Q: All of the following are true regarding college students and chronic illness risks except A: college students experience lower rates of chronic illness than the adult population as a whole.

B: most college students meet the American Heart Association's recommendations for physical activity.

C: the majority of students report being at a healthy weight.

D: college students often engage in behaviors that increase the risk of developing chronic illnesses.

Q: Life expectancy in the U.S. is highest for A: Hispanics.

B: African Americans.

C: Asian Americans.

D: Native Americans.

Q: Rewarding yourself for successfully quitting smoking would be an example of a(n) A: predisposing factor in behavior change.

B: enabling factor in behavior change.

C: reinforcing factor in behavior change.

D: self-efficacy factor in behavior change.

Q: Which of the following health issues can affect college achievement? A: Stress

B: Sexual health

C: Tobacco use

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: Which of the following is true with respect to health? A: It encompasses multiple aspects or dimensions of a person's life.

B: It is not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

C: It is influenced by lifestyle choices.

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: Recall Jasmine's Student Story in the chapter. Jasmine is the night owl who is a college freshman. Based on her story in your text, what does Jasmine need to work on changing? A: Social relationships

B: Sleep habits

C: Eating habits

D: Work schedule

Q: Which of the following is true with respect to gender differences in health outcomes? A: Women tend to live about 4 years longer than men.

B: Women have lower rates of disabling health problems such as arthritis.

C: Women are more likely to experience high blood pressure.

D: Women have higher rates of cancer.

Q: Health literacy includes the ability to A: read, understand, evaluate, and follow medical instructions.

B: make medical choices based on gut instinct.

C: decide what medications are actually necessary to treat a condition.

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: College students tend to overestimate how many of their peers are A: using alcohol.

B: smoking.

C: using illicit drugs.

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: Infectious disease is a global health concern because A: airplane travel provides a means of spreading the diseases.

B: countries with more economic development face diseases that have been eradicated from other areas.

C: HIV/AIDS is increasing in more developed countries.

D: there are no international organizations working on the problem.

Q: Which of the following is among the four top goals of Healthy People 2020? A: Eliminating preventable disease

B: Establishing a different set of goals and objectives from those of Healthy People 2010

C: Promoting healthy behaviors exclusively within the oldest group in the population

D: Supporting research that studies the underlying causes of health, disease, and disability

Q: The leading cause of death in 15-24 year olds in the U.S. is A: heart disease.

B: accidents/unintentional injuries.

C: cancer.

D: suicide.

Q: When looking for health information online, you should A: avoid sites with URLs that end with ".gov".

B: stick to commercial sites advertising products and services.

C: seek out sites with reputable professional accreditations.

D: prioritize sites that are attractively designed.

Q: According to a recent nationwide study on student health, most students describe their health as A: very good or excellent.

B: good.

C: fair.

D: poor.

Q: The current life expectancy at birth in the U.S. is A: 67.7 years.

B: 72.7 years.

C: 77.7 years.

D: 82.7 years.

Q: Which of the following is not a factor in the Health Belief Model of behavior change? A: Perceived threat

B: Perceived benefit

C: Self-efficacy

D: Access to health care

Q: Self efficacy, as it relates to behavior change, is all of the following except A: the belief that you can make successful change.

B: demonstrating a sense of personal control over a situation.

C: the view that you avoid thinking about a difficult situation.

D: the ability to take action to change a behavior.

Q: An article about the results of the latest study on the health effects of vitamin B12 is more credible if it is A: carried out by an individual organization that sells a B12 product.

B: the first study showing a health benefit for taking vitamin B12.

C: supported by other researchers who have replicated the same results.

D: lacking information about how the study was funded.

Q: All of the following has contributed to improvements in health and an increase in life expectancy in the U.S. except A: an increase in vigorous leisure-time exercise among the U.S. population.

B: a reduction in smoking rates among the U.S. population.

C: widespread vaccinations.

D: safer food handling.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the Maintenance stage of the Stages of Change Model? A: The new behavior is maintained for only 3 months.

B: Relapses are unlikely.

C: It can last months or even years.

D: There is no longer a need to work actively to keep from reverting back to old habits.

Q: Kara wants to start jogging for exercise, has just bought a pair of shoes and workout clothes, and has signed up to join a jogging group. Based on this information, what stage in the Stages of Change model is Kara in? A: Contemplation

B: Preparation

C: Action

D: Maintenance

Q: Global public health efforts are lead by

A: the World Health Organization.

B: the United Nations.

C: privately funded international health organizations.

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: The most common health problem reported by students in a recent nationwide study was

A: allergies.

B: bronchitis.

C: strep throat.

D: sinus infection.

Q: One of the two primary goals of Healthy People 2010 was to

A: increase immunizations.

B: decrease substance abuse.

C: eliminate significant health disparities.

D: help people improve mental health.

Q: A behavior change contract should not

A: list obstacles to making a particular change.

B: develop strategies for overcoming obstacles.

C: list every possible behavior change you might make.

D: set short-term goals for achieving your objective.

Q: Health disparities among different ethnic groups may be tied to

A: socioeconomic status.

B: cultural differences.

C: biological differences.

D: All of the answers are correct.

Q: The genetic disease cystic fibrosis is most commonly found among

A: Hispanics.

B: African Americans.

C: Native Americans.

D: Caucasians.

Q: Psychological health is a broad category that encompasses all of the following except

A: mental health.

B: physical fitness.

C: aspects of spiritual health.

D: a person's moods and feelings.

Q: Key behavioral guidelines that have a profound ability to influence personal health include all of the following except

A: be physically active.

B: eat nutritiously.

C: take a daily vitamin.

D: do not drink alcohol excessively.

Q: Strategies for successful behavior change include all of the following except

A: learning behaviors by watching others.

B: breaking a big task into smaller tasks.

C: implementing punishment if change is not sustained.

D: using positive self-talk.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding progress made as shown by Healthy People 2010 leading indicators?

A: The target percentage of the population meeting an objective was achieved in most areas.

B: The target percentage of the population meeting an objective was achieved only for not smoking.

C: The target percentage of the population meeting an objective was not met for any indicator.

D: The target percentage for staying within low-risk drinking guidelines was different for males and females

Q: What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand? A. Linking the nucleotides into a strand

B: Holding complementary strands together

C: Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine

D: Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA

Q: What is the result of DNA replication? A. Formation of two new daughter cells

B: Formation of two identical sets of DNA

C: Disappearance of the original parent cell

D: Activation and attachment of spindle fibers

Q: Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?

A: The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.

B: Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.

C: Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.

D: One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother and one is inherited from the father.

Q: What would be the expected result of a drug that affected a particular tissue by causing new DNA to form with covalent bonds instead of hydrogen bonds?

A: None of the cells in the affected tissue would be able to leave G0 and enter the cell cycle.

B: Replication of DNA would result in identical DNA strands instead of complementary strands.

C: Mitosis of cells in the tissue would result in the production of three new daughter cells instead of just two.

D: The new cells that formed within this tissue would not be able to complete the next round of mitosis successfully.

Q: What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?

A: The cell undergoes cytokinesis.

B: Activity stops and the cell “sleeps.”

C: All DNA is completely replicated.

D: Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.

Q: Which of these complementary base pairs form the strongest or “tightest” association?

A: Adenine and thymine

B: Cytosine and guanine

C: Guanine and thymine

D: Cytosine and Adenine

Q: In which body or cell area are most genes in humans located? A. Nucleus

B: Mitochondrion

C: Cytoplasm

D: Plasma membrane

Q: Which chromosome number represents the euploid state for normal human somatic cells?

A: 44

B: 46

C: 47

D: 48

Q: How does the enzyme DNA ligase contribute to DNA replication?

A: Unwinds the double helix and separates the double-stranded DNA

B: Creates a “nick” in the DNA supercoils allowing them to straighten before replication

C: Initiates DNA synthesis in multiple sites down the strand making the process more efficient

D: Connects and links the individual pieces of newly synthesized DNA to form a single strand

Q: What is the term used to describe the organized picture of the paired chromosomes within a cell used to determine whether chromosome numbers, structures, and banding patterns are normal?

A: Pedigree

B: Phenotype

C: Karyotype

D: Autosome

Q: Which statement regarding chromosome structure or function is true?

A: The chromatids of any single chromosome are known as “sister chromatids.”

B: The genes located on the telomeres of chromosomes are identical to the genes in the centromeres.

C: Immediately before the mitosis phase of cell division, the chromosomes of all somatic cells are haploid.

D: A specific gene allele on one chromosome has a complementary allele on the other chromosome of a pair.

Q: How does the proteome differ from the genome?

A: The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.

B: The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.

C: The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the genome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.

D: The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells, whereas the proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.

Q: What percentage of bases in a stretch of double-stranded DNA that contains 30% guanine (G) bases would be adenine (A:?

A: 70%

B: 60%

C: 30%

D: 20%

Q: Which statement about G0 is true? A. Hyperplastic growth in place of hypertrophic growth

B: Performance of specific differentiated functions

C: Initiation and completion of nucleokinesis

D: Replication of DNA

Q: What is the correct interpretation of the statement “the HFE gene locus is 6p21”?

A: Both alleles of the HFE gene are equally expressed.

B: The HFE gene is inherited from the paternal chromosome line.

C: The HFE gene alleles are located on the “short arms” of chromosome number 6.

D: There is a somatic cell mutation involving gene allele damage on chromosome 6.

Q: What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell?

A: It is usually homozygous.

B: The sex chromosomes are missing.

C: Only one chromosome of each pair is present.

D: DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before.

Q: Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait?

A: A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits.

B: When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is expressed and the recessive allele is silent.

C: One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome and the other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome.

D: Expression of more than two alleles of any single gene trait results in enhanced expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles.

Q: At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures? A. G1

B: G2

C: S

D: M

Q: What would be the sequence of DNA that is complementary to a DNA section with the base sequence of GGTCAATCCTTAG? A. GATTCCTAACTGG

B: TTGACCGAAGGCT

C: AACTGGCTTCCGA

D: CCAGTTAGGAATC

Q: What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for blood type and a father who is A/B for blood type?

A: 25% A, 25% B, 25% O, 25% AB

B: 25% A, 50% B, 0% O, 25% AB

C: 50% A, 25% B, 25% O, 0% AB

D: 50% A, 25% B, 0% O, 25% AB

Q: Under what normal condition are genotype and phenotype always the same?

A: Trisomy of alleles

B: Triploidy of alleles

C: Homozygosity of alleles

D: Heterozygosity of alleles

Q: What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of the trait coded for by that gene?

A: Alleles

B: Bases

C: Centromeres

D: Diploids

Q: Which word is derived from the Greek word meaning “cutting up”?

A: dissection

B: physiology

C: pathology

D: anatomy

Q: The part of the feedback loop that compares the present condition to the homeostatic condition the body is trying to maintain is called

A: homeostasis

B: the effector

C: the sensor

D: the control center

Q: The opposite term for posterior in humans is

A: superior

B: anterior

C: ventral

D: both b and c

Q: The heart is an example of a(n)

A: organ

B: tissue

C: organism

D: system

Q: Because humans walk upright, the term “dorsal” can be used in place of the term

A: inferior

B: posterior

C: anterior

D: distal

Q: Cells are

A: more complex than tissues

B: are the first level of organization in the body

C: are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body

D: both b and c

Q: The opposite term for superficial is

A: deep

B: inferior

C: posterior

D: medial

Q: The prone position

A: describes the body lying face up

B: is also called the anatomical position

C: describes the body lying face down

D: both b and c

Q: Which of the following body functions is an example of a positive feedback loop?

A: maintaining a pH of 7.45 in the body

B: forming a blood clot

C: uterine contractions during labor

D: both b and c

Q: The supine position

A: describes the body lying face up

B: is also called anatomical position

C: describes the body lying face down

D: both a and b

Q: The part of the feedback loop that detects a change in the regulated condition is called

A: homeostasis

B: the effector

C: the sensor

D: the control center

Q: A coronal plane or section is another term for a _____ plane.

A: sagittal

B: midsagittal

C: transverse

D: frontal

Q: A section that divides the body into mirror images is a _____ section.

A: frontal

B: coronal

C: midsagittal

D: transverse

Q: Which of these terms cannot be applied to a body in the anatomical position?

A: dorsal

B: posterior

C: supine

D: both a and b

Q: The levels of organization from most simple to most complex are

A: cell chemical organ tissue system

B: tissue cell chemical organ system

C: chemical tissue cell organ system

D: chemical cell tissue organ system

Q: Which is not a part of the upper abdominopelvic region?

A: right hypochondriac region

B: epigastric region

C: hypogastric region

D: All of the above are part of the upper abdominopelvic region.

Q: The part of a feedback loop that has the direct effect on the regulated condition is called

A: homeostasis

B: the effector

C: the sensor

D: the control center

Q: When your body temperature drops below normal, your muscles begin to contract rapidly, making you shiver and generating heat. In this case your muscles are acting as the

A: sensor

B: effector

C: control center

D: both a and c

Q: The body section that divides the right ear from the left ear is a _____ section.

A: frontal

B: sagittal

C: coronal

D: transverse

Q: The word “leg” correctly describes the

A: area from the hip to the foot

B: area from the knee to the ankle

C: area between the hip and the knee

D: femoral area

Q: The liver can be found in the

A: upper right quadrant

B: epigastric region

C: hypogastric region

D: both a and b

Q: The level of organization directly below the organ level is the _____ level.

A: system

B: cellular

C: tissue

D: chemical

Q: Which describes the anatomical relationship of the wrist to the elbow?

A: The elbow is proximal to the wrist.

B: The elbow is distal to the wrist.

C: The elbow is superficial to the wrist.

D: The elbow is lateral to the wrist.

Q: The muscular sheet called the diaphragm divides the

A: right and left pleural cavities

B: thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavities

C: abdominal and pelvic cavities

D: thoracic cavity and mediastinum

Q: Which word is defined as the scientific study of disease?

A: dissection

B: physiology

C: pathology

D: anatomy

Q: The two major body cavities are called

A: thoracic and abdominal

B: thoracic and pelvic

C: dorsal and ventral

D: mediastinum and pleural

Q: When using directional terms to describe the body, it is assumed that the body is in what position?

A: supine

B: anatomical

C: lateral

D: prone

Q: A group of cells that act together to perform a function is called a(n)

A: molecule

B: organ

C: tissue

D: organism

Q: Which word is defined as the study of the function of living organisms and their parts?

A: dissection

B: physiology

C: pathology

D: anatomy

Q: Which term means “toward the head”?

A: anterior

B: superior

C: superficial

D: ventral

Q: The body section that divides the nose from the back of the head is a _____ section.

A: frontal

B: sagittal

C: midsagittal

D: transverse

Q: The human body tries to maintain a constant body temperature. This is an example of

A: homeostasis

B: a positive feedback loop

C: an effector

D: a sensor

Q: What is the basic foundation of a medical term?

A: word root

B: prefix

C: combining form

Q: Select the word root that means skin.

A: megaly

B: dermat

C: cardi

Q: Select the word root that means heart.

A: cardi

B: dermat

C: megaly

Q: Which prefix means around?

A: intra

B: peri

C: epi

Q: Select the prefix that means within.

A: peri

B: endo

C: inter

Q: What is the word root plus a special vowel called?

A: combining form

B: prefix

C: suffix

Q: Which term is spelled correctly?

A: cardiomegaly

B: cardimegaly

C: cardomegaly

Q: Choose the word that is spelled correctly.

A: cardioalgia

B: cardalgia

C: cardialgia

Q: Which word part is always placed at the end of the word?

A: word root

B: suffix

C: combining form

Q: Which word part is always placed at the beginning of the word?

A: word root

B: suffix

C: prefix

Q: In making a term that ends in -um plural, you should:

A: keep the -um and add an -a

B: drop the -um and add an -a

C: drop the -um and add -ta

D: drop the -um and add a -y

Q: Which combining form means “nose”?

A: gastr/o

B: hepat/o

C: rhin/o

D: electr/o

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the common types of medical terms?

A: Latin words

B: French words

C: modern English words

D: Greek words

Q: Which suffix means “inflammation”?

A: -gram

B: -megaly

C: -logy

D: -itis

Q: Which combining form is spelled incorrectly?

A: gastr/o

B: carcen/o

C: rhin/o

D: oste/o

Q: In which situation is a combining vowel never used?

A: between two word roots

B: between a word root and a suffix when the suffix begins with a consonant

C: between a prefix and a word root

D: a combining vowel is needed in all the above situations

Q: Which combining form means “heart”?

A: cardi/o

B: carcin/o

C: gastr/o

D: cis/o

Q: Which of the following is the type of information provided by a suffix?

A: diagnostic procedure

B: positions

C: numbers

D: times

Q: The combining form cephal/o means:

A: bone

B: head

C: muscle

D: liver

Q: Which of the following statements regarding prefixes is NOT true?

A: Prefixes indicate surgical procedures.

B: Prefixes are found at the beginning of terms.

C: Many medical terms do not have a prefix.

D: A hyphen is placed at the end of a prefix when it is written by itself.

Q: Which prefix is misspelled?

A: inter-

B: post-

C: dis-

D: sub-

Q: Which of the following statements regarding suffixes is NOT true?

A: A hyphen is placed at the front of a suffix when it is written by itself.

B: A suffix gives information such as conditions or diseases.

C: Not all medical terms contain a suffix.

D: Suffixes are placed at the end of a medical term.

Q: The prefix dys- means:

A: between

B: two

C: below

D: abnormal

Q: Which of the following is NOT information frequently referred to by word roots?

A: body structure

B: organ

C: system

D: diseases

Q: Which suffix is misspelled?

A: -ektomy

B: -logy

C: -megaly

D: -itis

Q: If a word ends in -us, make it plural by:

A: keeping the -us and adding -ta

B: dropping -us and adding -ies

C: keeping the -us and adding -e

D: dropping -us and adding -i

Q: Which of the following statements regarding combining vowels is true?

A: A combining vowel is used between a prefix and a word root.

B: A combining vowel is used to make a prefix more pronounceable.

C: A combining vowel is placed between two word roots.

D: A combining vowel is placed between a word root and a suffix if the suffix begins with a vowel.

Q: Which prefix means “without”?

A: a-

B: bi-

C: inter-

D: post-

Q: Which of the following is NOT the type of information provided by a prefix?

A: procedure

B: position

C: number

D: time

Q: Which medical terminology word part provides the essential meaning of the word?

A: combining vowel

B: word root

C: suffix

D: prefix

Q: When reading an unfamiliar medical term, the first step in analyzing the term is to:

A: put the meaning of word parts together

B: sound the word out loud

C: define each word part

D: divide the term into its word parts

Q: Which of the following answers is an example of an eponym?

A: Alzheimer disease

B: cardiology

C: irritable bowel syndrome

D: magnetic resonance imaging

Q: Which combining form means “stomach”?

A: cardi/o

B: gastr/o

C: hepat/o

D: arthr/o

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the word parts in a medical term?

A: Combining vowel

B: Word root

C: Combining form

D: Suffix

Q: The suffix -megaly means:

A: study of

B: enlarged

C: record or picture

D: disease

Q: Select the prefix that does not mean within.

A: En-

B: Endo-

C: Infra

D: Intra

Q: The plural form of the medical term bacterium is bacteria.

True

False

Q: Combining vowels aid the pronunciation of medical terms.

True

False

Q: Which suffix means abnormal condition?

A: -tocia

B: -oma

C: -osis

D: -phoria

Q: The prefix of a medical term indicates whether the term is a noun or an adjective.

True

False

Q: Combining forms must be used to connect all word elements.

True

False

Q: Medical terms with three or more syllables are accented on the first syllable.

True

False

Q: Medical terminology is the language of the health care industry.

True

False

Q: Select the prefix that means change.

A: Ante-

B: Non-

C: Anti

D: Meta

Q: Choose the prefix that means slow.

A: Tachy-

B: Brady-

C: Pan

D: Meta

Q: Ampullas is the plural form of the medical term ampulla.

True

False

Q: Select the suffix that means drooping, sagging, or prolapse.

A: -paresis

B: -ptosis

C: -ptysis

D: -stenosis

Q: Substernal chest pain is felt:

A: Under the arm

B: Near the sternum

C: Between the ribs

D: Below the sternum

Q: The word root often identifies a body part or color.

True

False

Q: Select the suffix that means cell.

A: -crit

B: -crine

C: -cyte

D: -gram

Q: The most common combining vowel is the letter "o."

True

False

Q: Select the suffix that means opening.

A: -tresia

B: -ectomy

C: -tomy

D: -stomy

Q: Which suffix means hernia or herniation?

A: -rrhaphy

B: -cele

C: -malacia

D: -lysis

Q: Which prefix does not mean above?

A: Peri-

B: Epi-

C: Supra

D: Super

Q: Select the suffix that means drooping, sagging, or prolapse.

A: -paresis

B: -ptosis

C: -ptysis

D: -stenosis

Q: The word root often identifies a body part or color.

True

False

Q: Which suffix means hernia or herniation?

A: -rrhaphy

B: -cele

C: -malacia

D: -lysis

Q: Ampullas is the plural form of the medical term ampulla.

True

False

Q: Select the suffix that means opening.

A: -tresia

B: -ectomy

C: -tomy

D: -stomy

Q: Combining vowels aid the pronunciation of medical terms.

True

False

Q: Select the suffix that means cell.

A: -crit

B: -crine

C: -cyte

D: -gram

Q: Which suffix means abnormal condition?

A: -tocia

B: -oma

C: -osis

D: -phoria

Q: Medical terms with three or more syllables are accented on the first syllable.

True

False

Q: The prefix of a medical term indicates whether the term is a noun or an adjective.

True

False

Q: Combining forms must be used to connect all word elements.

True

False

Q: The most common combining vowel is the letter "o."

True

False

Q: Medical terminology is the language of the health care industry.

True

False

Q: Substernal chest pain is felt:

A: Under the arm

B: Near the sternum

C: Between the ribs

D: Below the sternum

Q: Select the prefix that does not mean within.

A: En-

B: Endo-

C: Infra

D: Intra

Q: Choose the prefix that means slow.

A: Tachy-

B: Brady-

C: Pan

D: Meta

Q: Which prefix does not mean above?

A: Peri-

B: Epi-

C: Supra

D: Super

Q: Select the prefix that means change.

A: Ante-

B: Non-

C: Anti

D: Meta

Q: The plural form of the medical term bacterium is bacteria.

True

False