Q: At Hard Rock Café, tasks that reflect operations or operations management include:
A: designing efficient layouts.
B: providing meals.
C: receiving ingredients.
D: preparing effective employee schedules.
E: all of the above.
Answer: E
Q: An operations task performed at Hard Rock Café is:
A: borrowing funds to build a new restaurant.
B: advertising changes in the restaurant menu.
C: calculating restaurant profit and loss.
D: preparing employee schedules.
E: all of the above.
Answer: D
Q: Operations management is applicable:
A: mostly to the service sector.
B: to services exclusively.
C: mostly to the manufacturing sector.
D: to all firms, whether manufacturing or service.
E: to the manufacturing sector exclusively.
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following are the primary functions of all organizations?
A: production/operations, marketing, and human resources
B: marketing, human resources, and finance/accounting
C: sales, quality control, and production/operations
D: marketing, production/operations, and finance/accounting
E: research and development, finance/accounting, and purchasing
Answer: D
A: Frank Gilbreth
B: W. Edwards Deming
C: Henry L. Gantt
D: Lillian Gilbreth
E: Frederick W. Taylor
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following would NOT be an operations function in a commercial bank?
A: auditing
B: teller scheduling
C: maintenance
D: collection
E: check clearing
Answer: A
Q: The marketing function's main concern is with:
A: producing goods or providing services.
B: procuring materials, supplies, and equipment.
C: building and maintaining a positive image.
D: generating the demand for the organization's products or services.
E: securing monetary resources.
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Q: Which of the following tasks within an airline company are related to operations?
A: crew scheduling
B: international monetary exchange
C: sales
D: advertising
E: accounts payable
Answer: A
A: supply tree
B: provider network
C: supply chain
D: vendor network
E: vendor tree
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following fosters specialization and worldwide supply chains?
A: more expensive transportation
B: instant communication
C: economies of scope
D: managers with a broad knowledge of many things
E: high trade tariffs
Answer: B
Q: Reasons to study operations management include:
A: studying how people organize themselves for productive enterprise.
B: knowing how goods and services are consumed.
C: understanding what human resource managers do.
D: learning about a costly part of the enterprise.
E: A and D
Answer: E
Q: Reasons to study operations management include learning about:
A: how people organize themselves for productive enterprise.
B: how goods and services are produced.
C: what operations managers do.
D: a costly part of the enterprise.
E: all of the above.
Answer: E
Q: What are the five elements in the management process?
A: plan, direct, update, lead, and supervise
B: accounting, finance, marketing, operations, and management
C: organize, plan, control, staff, and manage
D: plan, organize, staff, lead, and control
E: plan, lead, organize, manage, and control
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following is NOT an element of the management process?
A: controlling
B: leading
C: planning
D: pricing
E: staffing
Answer: D
Q: An operations manager is NOT likely to be involved in:
A: the design of goods and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs.
B: the quality of goods and services to satisfy customers' wants and needs.
C: the identification of customers' wants and needs.
D: work scheduling to meet the due dates promised to customers.
E: maintenance schedules.
Answer: C
Q: All of the following decisions fall within the scope of operations management EXCEPT for:
A: creating the company income statement.
B: design of goods and services.
C: location strategy.
D: managing quality.
E: human resources and job design.
Answer: A
Q: The 10 strategic operations management decisions include:
A: layout strategy.
B: maintenance.
C: process and capacity design.
D: managing quality.
E: all of the above.
Answer: E
Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the 10 strategic operations management decisions?
A: layout strategy
B: maintenance
C: process and capacity design
D: mass customization
E: supply chain management
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following is one of the 10 strategic operations management decisions?
A: depreciation policy for tax returns
B: advertising
C: process and capacity design
D: pricing
E: debt/equity ratio
Answer: C
1Q: Which of the following influences layout design?
A: inventory requirements
B: capacity needs
C: personnel levels
D: technology
E: All of the above influence layout decisions.
Answer: E
1Q: Which of the following is NOT a strategic operations management decision?
A: maintenance
B: price
C: layout design
D: quality
E: inventory
Answer: B
A: assembly line production.
B: measuring productivity in the service sector.
C: just-in-time inventory methods.
D: statistical quality control.
E: information technology.
Answer: D
Q: Walter Shewhart, in the ________, provided the foundations for ________ in operations management.
A: 1920s; statistical sampling
B: United Kingdom; mass production
C: U.S. Army; logistics
D: nineteenth century; interchangeable parts
E: 1900s; queuing theory
Answer: A
Q: Eli Whitney, in the ________, provided the foundations for ________ in operations management.
A: 1920s; statistical sampling
B: United Kingdom; mass production
C: U.S. Army; logistics
D: nineteenth century; interchangeable parts
E: 1890s; queuing theory
Answer: D
Q: Who was the person most responsible for popularizing interchangeable parts in manufacturing?
A: Frederick Winslow Taylor
B: Henry Ford
C: Eli Whitney
D: Whitney Houston
E: Lillian Gilbreth
Answer: C
Q: The "Father of Scientific Management" is:
A: Henry Ford.
B: Frederick W. Taylor.
C: W. Edwards Deming.
D: Frank Gilbreth.
E: just a figure of speech, not a reference to a person.
Answer: B
Q: Henry Ford is noted for his contributions to:
A: material requirements planning.
B: statistical quality control.
C: assembly line operations.
D: scientific management.
E: time and motion studies.
Answer: C
A: Charles Babbage
B: Henry Ford
C: Frank Gilbreth
D: W. Edwards Deming
E: Henri Fayol
Answer: D
Q: The field of operations management is shaped by advances in which of the following fields?
A: chemistry and physics
B: industrial engineering and management science
C: biology and anatomy
D: information technology
E: all of the above
Answer: E
1Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A: The person most responsible for initiating the use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Eli Whitney.
B: The origins of management by exception are generally credited to Frederick W. Taylor.
C: The person most responsible for initiating the use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Walter Shewhart.
D: The origins of the scientific management movement are generally credited to Henry Ford.
E: The person most responsible for initiating the use of interchangeable parts in manufacturing was Henry Ford.
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following is the best example of a pure service?
A: counseling
B: oil change
C: heart transplant
D: electric Co-Op
E: restaurant
Answer: A
Q: The service sector makes up approximately what percentage of all jobs in the United States?
A: 12%
B: 40%
C: 66%
D: 86%
E: 94%
Answer: D
Q: Which is NOT true regarding differences between goods and services?
A: Tangible goods are generally produced and consumed simultaneously; services are not.
B: Most goods are common to many customers; services are often unique to the final customer.
C: Services tend to have a more inconsistent product definition than goods.
D: Services tend to have higher customer interaction than goods.
E: None, i.e., all of the above are true.
Answer: A
Q: Which is NOT true regarding differences between goods and services?
A: Services are generally produced and consumed simultaneously; tangible goods are not.
B: Services tend to be more knowledge-based than goods.
C: Services tend to have a more inconsistent product definition than goods.
D: Goods tend to have higher customer interaction than services.
E: Reselling is unusual in services; goods often have some residual value.
Answer: D
A: dental care
B: hairdressing
C: legal services
D: elementary education
E: computer consulting
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following is NOT a typical service attribute?
A: intangible product
B: easy to store
C: customer interaction is high
D: simultaneous production and consumption
E: difficult to resell
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following attributes is most typical of a service?
A: production and consumption occur simultaneously
B: tangible
C: mass production
D: consistency
E: easy to automate
Answer: A
1Q: Which of the following is a similarity between goods and services?
A: mass production
B: consistency
C: automation
D: Both have quality standards.
E: Both can usually be kept in inventory.
Answer: D
A: 2%
B: 5%
C: 10%
D: 20%
E: 50%
Answer: D
A: 1.2 covers/hr.
B: 2 covers/hr.
C: 12 covers/hr.
D: 1200 covers/hr.
E: 120 covers/hr.
Answer: C
A: 14.4 covers/hr.
B: 24 covers/hr.
C: 240 covers/hr.
D: 1200 covers/hr.
E: 10 covers/hr.
Answer: A
A: 2 valves/hr.
B: 40 valves/hr.
C: 80 valves/hr.
D: 200 valves/hr.
E: 1600 valves/hr.
Answer: D
A: 180 valves/hr.
B: 200 valves/hr.
C: 220 valves/hr.
D: 880 valves/hr.
E: 1760 valves/hr.
Answer: C
A: 10%.
B: 20%.
C: 25%.
D: 40%.
E: 50%.
Answer: C
A: 25 boxes/hr.
B: 50 boxes/hr.
C: 5000 boxes/hr.
D: 0.04 boxes/hr.
E: 250 boxes/hr.
Answer: A
A: 32.5 boxes/hr.
B: 40.6 boxes/hr.
C: 62.5 boxes/hr.
D: 81.25 boxes/hr.
E: 300 boxes/hr.
Answer: B
A: It has not changed.
B: It has increased by 37.5 boxes/hr.
C: It has increased by 20%.
D: It has decreased by 8.3%.
E: It has decreased by 9.1%.
Answer: A
Q: Productivity measurement is complicated by:
A: the competition's output.
B: the fact that precise units of measure are often unavailable.
C: stable quality.
D: the workforce size.
E: the type of equipment used.
Answer: B
A: utilization.
B: greater in manufacturing than in services.
C: defined only for manufacturing firms.
D: multifactor productivity.
E: single-factor productivity.
Answer: D
Q: Which productivity variable has the greatest potential to increase productivity?
A: labor
B: globalization
C: management
D: capital
E: energy
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following nets the largest productivity improvement?
A: increase output 15%
B: decrease input 15%
C: increase both output and input by 5%
D: increase output 10%, decrease input 3%
E: decrease input 10%, increase output 3%
Answer: B
Q: Productivity can be improved by:
A: increasing inputs while holding outputs steady.
B: decreasing outputs while holding inputs steady.
C: increasing inputs and outputs in the same proportion.
D: decreasing inputs while holding outputs steady.
E: none of the above.
Answer: D
A: management; over one-half
B: Mr. Deming; one-half
C: labor; two-thirds
D: capital; 90%
E: technology; over one-half
Answer: A
Q: The factor responsible for the largest portion of productivity increase in the United States is:
A: labor.
B: management.
C: capital.
D: All three combined; it is impossible to determine the contribution of individual factors.
E: none of these.
Answer: B
A: Services are typically labor-intensive.
B: Services are often difficult to evaluate for quality.
C: Services are often an intellectual task performed by professionals.
D: Services are difficult to automate.
E: Service operations are typically capital intensive.
Answer: E
Q: Three commonly used productivity variables are:
A: quality, external elements, and precise units of measure.
B: labor, capital, and management.
C: technology, raw materials, and labor.
D: education, diet, and social overhead.
E: quality, efficiency, and low cost.
Answer: B
Q: The service sector has lower productivity improvements than the manufacturing sector because:
A: the service sector uses less skilled labor than manufacturing.
B: the quality of output is lower in services than manufacturing.
C: services usually are labor-intensive.
D: service sector productivity is hard to measure.
E: the service sector is often easy to mechanize and automate.
Answer: C
Q: Productivity tends to be more difficult to improve in the service sector because the work is:
A: often difficult to automate.
B: typically labor-intensive.
C: frequently processed individually.
D: often an intellectual task performed by professionals.
E: All of the above make service productivity more difficult.
Answer: E
A: less than 2 hours
B: between 9 and 10 hours
C: between 2 and 6 hours
D: between 6 and 8 hours
E: between 8 and 9 hours
Answer: E
A: 0%
B: 10%
C: 15%
D: 25%
E: 33%
Answer: D
A: 0%
B: 8.3%
C: 25%
D: 50%
E: 16.7%
Answer: B
Q: Current challenges in operations management include all of the following EXCEPT:
A: just-in-time performance.
B: rapid product development.
C: mass customization.
D: empowered employees.
E: None of the above are exceptions, i.e., all are current challenges.
Answer: E
Q: Which of the following statements about challenges in operations management is FALSE?
A: Job specialization is giving way to empowered employees.
B: Local or national focus is giving way to global focus.
C: Sustainable production is giving way to a low-cost focus.
D: Rapid product development is partly the result of shorter product cycles.
E: The goal of mass customization is to produce customized products, whenever and wherever needed.
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following is NOT among the ethical and social challenges facing operations managers?
A: honoring stakeholder commitments
B: training, retaining, and motivating employees
C: efficiently developing and producing safe high-quality green products
D: increasing executive pay
E: providing a safe workplace
Answer: D
A: lenders.
B: suppliers.
C: owners.
D: employees.
E: all of the above.
Answer: E
A: alumni
B: investors
C: vestors
D: stockholders
E: stakeholders
Answer: E
A: Germany
B: Canada
C: Mexico
D: Japan
E: United Kingdom
Q: Suppose that a plant has a daily productivity of 0.85 parts per employee? What can we conclude?
A: the plant must be very labor-intensive
B: the plant is not earning profits
C: the plant must be highly automated
D: the plant should lay off workers
E: nothing
Q: Environmental scanning would not provide information on:
a) sources of highly trained workers
B: the firm’s internal inefficient distribution system
C: opportunities and threats
D: changes in information technology
E: changes in global competition
Q: Which of the following is not typically considered to be a core competency?
a) workforce
B: mission
C: market understanding
D: technology
E: facilities
Q: Empire West displays what by specializing in making a wide variety of products?
a) outsourcing
B: SCM
C: quality
D: flexibility
E: efficiency
A: 100% decrease
B: 11.54% increase
C: 34.62% decrease
D: 15% increase
E: 15% decrease
A: 4.545% decrease
B: 4.545% increase
C: 4.762% increase
D: 4.762% decrease
E: 50.000% increase
Q: When does productivity increase?
A: inputs increase while outputs remain the same
B: inputs decrease while outputs remain the same
C: outputs decrease while inputs remain the same
D: inputs and outputs increase proportionally
E: none of the above
Q: Suppose that a plant has a total productivity measure of 0.85. What can we conclude?
A: the plant is not earning profits
B: nothing
C: the plant should lay off workers
D: the plant is highly automated
E: the daily productivity is excellent
Q: Which type of technology has had the greatest impact on business?
a) process technology
B: information technology
C: environmental technology
D: safety technology
E: product technology
a) inputs = $2000, outputs = $5000
B: inputs = $5000, outputs = $10,000
C: inputs = $4000, outputs = $8000
D: inputs = $10,000, outputs = $4000
E: inputs = $12,000, outputs = $40,000
Q: What term describes the process of obtaining goods or services from an outside provider?
a) outproviding
B: transferization
C: outsourcing
D: subsourcing
E: supersourcing
Q: Once a business strategy has been developed: A: service prices are established
B: competition must be identified
C: an operations strategy must be formulated
D: contracting with external sources must begin
E: insourcing will be conducted
A: 4,000 bags/shift
B: 4,000 bags/handler
C: 14,000 bags/shift
D: 12,000 bags/shift
E: 2,000 bags/handler
Q: Order winners and qualifiers:
A: are consistent between manufacturing and service organizations
B: only matter when responding to formal competitive bid requests
C: remain constant over time
D: change over time
E: only apply to quasi-manufacturing firms
A: 5.45%
B: 250.00%
C: - 5.45%
D: 5.77%
E: - 5.77%
a) inputs = $1100, outputs = $4000
B: inputs = $1100, outputs = $4200
C: inputs = $850, outputs = $3600
D: inputs = $1000, outputs = $3900
E: inputs = $2000, outputs = $8000
Q: Decisions regarding which of the following are not part of the production process structure?
A: management policies
B: facilities
C: robots
D: flow of goods and services through the facility
E: flexible manufacturing system (FMS) machines
Q: Technology should be acquired because:
a) the new technology is fun
B: the new technology keeps the employees happy
C: the new technology doesn’t cost very much
D: the new technology always improves productivity
E: the new technology supports the company’s chosen competitive priorities
Q: Which of the following is a valid type of “productivity measure�?
A: multi-output productivity measure
B: partial productivity measure
C: multi-part productivity measure
D: multi-component productivity measure
E: imperfect productivity measure
Q: When making competitive priority decisions the firm:
a) must select the correct supply chain
B: must ensure the PWP is correctly established
C: must focus on the one competitive priority at the exclusion of all others
D: must make trade-off decisions
E: must isolate the competing internal departments
a) inputs = $110,000, outputs = $800,000
B: inputs = $50,000, outputs = $400,000
C: inputs = $200,000, outputs = $1,600,000
D: inputs = $100,000, outputs = $820,000
E: inputs = $300,000, outputs = $1,600,000
Q: Decisions regarding which of the following are not part of the production process infrastructure?
A: organization of workers
B: facilities
C: worker pay
D: quality control measures
E: management policies
Q: Teflon is an example of what? A: process technology
B: information technology
C: environmental technology
D: safety technology
E: product technology
Q: Operational efficiency is: A: driving the business strategy
B: ensuring the right tasks are performed
C: decreasing the firm’s input requirements
D: increasing the firm’s output
E: performing operations tasks well
Q: Consider a pizza parlor. Which of the following would not be a valid productivity measure?
A: pizzas produced / number of workers used
B: pizzas produced / number of ovens
C: pizzas produced / cost of workers and ingredients
D: pizzas produced / cost of all inputs used
E: labor hours / pizzas produced
Q: Computer-aided manufacturing is an example of what? A: process technology
B: information technology
C: environmental technology
D: safety technology
E: product technology
A: technology
B: cost
C: quality
D: flexibility
E: time
A: units = 2000, hours = 120
B: units = 1500, hours = 95
C: units = 1000, hours = 58
D: units = 500, hours = 30
E: units = 2000, hours = 100
Q: Which of the following would not be considered a core competency that a company might have?
A: a highly trained workforce
B: an inefficient distribution system
C: skills in attracting and raising capital
D: use of information technology
E: quality control techniques
Q: What are the two key components of the operations strategy of Federal Express?
a) they own their own fleet of tractor trailers, and they use a sophisticated bar code technology
B: they own their own fleet of tractor trailers, and they have a large warehouse in every state
C: they own their own fleet of airplanes, and they have a large warehouse in every state
D: they use a sophisticated bar code technology, and they have a large warehouse in every state
E: they own their own fleet of airplanes, and they use a sophisticated bar code technology
A: 400.00%
B: 16.98%
C: 0.25%
D: 4.00%
E: 18.00%
B: product technology, process technology, and environmental technology
C: product technology, process technology, and safety technology
D: information technology, environmental technology, and safety technology
E: environmental technology, information technology, and process technology
Q: How does Federal Express maintain its ability to compete on time during peak demand periods?
A: it subcontracts overload to other firms
B: it purchases more planes
C: overtime
D: it uses a very flexible part-time workforce
E: it purchases more vans
A: technology
B: cost
C: quality
D: flexibility
E: time
A: 50.00% decrease
B: 88.46% increase
C: 88.46% decrease
D: 11.54% increase
E: 11.54% decrease
A: location
B: cost
C: flexibility
D: development speed
E: time
Q: Suppose that a plant has a daily productivity of 200 parts per employee? What can we conclude?
A: the daily productivity is excellent
B: the plant can hire more workers and still earn profits
C: the plant is not earning profits
D: the plant must be highly automated
E: nothing
A: 40 meals/staff
B: 45 meals/staff
C: 50 meals/staff
D: 55 meals/staff
E: 60 meals/staff
The process of monitoring the external environment is called what? A: environmental examination
B: environmental inspection
C: environmental scrutiny
D: environmental perusal
E: environmental scanning
A: plant 1
B: plant 2
C: plant 3
D: plant 4
E: plant 5
A: 33.33%
B: 0.00%
C: 25.55%
D: -25.00%
E: 4.67%
A: 10.00%
B: 25.00%
C: 11.11%
D: 0.00%
E: 5.56%
A: labor productivity will increase
B: machine productivity will decrease
C: labor productivity will decrease
D: multifactor productivity will increase
E: multifactor productivity will decrease
A: Pete
B: Tommy
C: Laura
D: Julie
E: Susan
a) 15.79%
B: 0.00%
C: 15.00%
D: 18.75%
E: -75.00%
A: Oven 1
B: Oven 2
C: Oven 3
D: Oven 4
E: Oven 5
A: Julius
B: Margaret
C: Dave
D: Suzy
E: Fawn
A: 7.92 bags/hour
B: 11.05 bags/hour
C: 10.00 bags/hour
D: 10.56 bags/hour
E: 61.67 bags/hour
A: 1000
B: 8
C: 2
D: 3
E: 0.5
a) 4.3 brackets/hour
B: 8.6 brackets/hour
C: 10.5 brackets/hour
D: 21.0 brackets/hour
E: 7.0 brackets/hour
A: marketplace trends
B: global climate trends
C: economic trends
D: political trends
E: social trends
A: 35
B: 40
C: 45
D: 50
E: 55
A: labor productivity will decrease
B: machine productivity will increase
C: multifactor productivity will decrease
D: multifactor productivity will increase
E: the value of output will decrease
A: 2.00
B: 1.33
C: 0.25
D: 0.75
E: 4.00
A: 1.82%
B: 1.79%
C: 27.27%
D: 25.00%
E: 5.00%
Q: A firm produces 100 units using 800 labor hours. What is its labor productivity?
A: 0.125 units/hour
B: 8 units/hour
C: 100 units/hour
D: 800 units/hour
E: -0.125 units/hour
A: 480 frames/machine
B: 330 frames/machine
C: 240 frames/machine
D: 160 frames/machine
E: 300 frames/machine
A: 37.50%
B: 60.00%
C: 100.00%
D: 300.00%
E: 200.00%
A: plant 1
B: plant 2
C: plant 3
D: plant 4
E: plant 5
A: units = 5000, hours = 900
B: units = 10,000, hours = 1500
C: units = 10,000, hours = 2000
D: units = 2500, hours = 500
E: units = 5000, hours = 1100
A: 6.00 loaves/hour
B: 3.00 loaves/hour
C: 2.67 loaves/hour
D: 1.33 loaves/hour
E: 0.38 loaves/hour
A: 10.00%
B: - 9.09%
C: 9.09%
D: -10.00%
E: - 4.55%
Q: Productivity is essentially: A: something to fill out managers’ reports
B: measure of resource effectiveness
C: a scorecard of how efficiently resources are used
D: a balance scorecard metric
E: the current business fad
A: 1.82
B: 0.77
C: 3.16
D: 0.12
E: 2.17
A: units = 70, hours = 160
B: units = 80, hours = 180
C: units = 240, hours = 500
D: units = 160, hours = 300
E: units = 40, hours = 100
A: 17 units/hour
B: 3 units/hour
C: 20 units/hour
D: 85 units/hour
E: 15 units/hour
Q: Which of the following has used the Internet to conduct a fashion show in order to boost sales?
A: The Gap
B: Eddie Bauer
C: Fruit of the Loom
D: Victoria’s Secret
E: Sears
A: -0.50%
B: -4.17%
C: 4.17%
D: -4.00%
E: 4.00%
A: outputs = $90 Million, inputs = $50 Million
B: outputs = $400 Million, inputs = $200 Million
C: outputs = $250 Million, inputs = $100 Million
D: outputs = $50 Million, inputs = $25 Million
E: outputs = $60 Million, inputs = $25 Million
A: 200%
B: 100%
C: 50%
D: 25%
E: 20%